Typography

Nick Rowe recently asked what the point of repoing an object was when you could just sell it, repurchasing it later. He could see three reasons. Firstly, you might repo a particluar thing because you hold it dear and want it back. It might not be available were you to simply try buying it back. Secondly, you might repo an asset because future liquidity might be an issue. Thirdly, you might repo an asset rather than sell it because future prices are uncertain. My comment used gold markets as an analogy: Nick, I think for financial assets you are right about points 2 and 3. In gold markets, for instance, you'd rather lend or swap (ie. repo) your gold than sell it (upon the anticipation of buying it back at some future point) because you might fear that, come time to buy the gold back, the future price could be much higher, or that the gold market could be illiquid and you might not be able to buy. Incidentally, you can also sell your gold and buy a futures contract. Selling spot and

I once got accused by Scott Sumner of having the silliest comment he had ever read back on this post. Recent events show that I wasn't being so silly. Around that time, the Swiss National Bank (SNB) had announced a peg of 1.20 EUR/CHF. The argument going around the market monetarist blogs back then was that central banks were akin to Chuck Norris - they only needed to explicitly announce a target and that target would be effortlessly hit, just like how Chuck Norris can make a row of kung-fu masters fall like dominoes just by threatening to hit them. I made a few other comments to the effect that a central bank has to build up credibility before anyone will accept it as Chuck Norris-like. Here is one comment: On August 3, the SNB announced it would be purchasing CHF50b in assets to drive EUR/CHF up. Over the next five days it purchased this amount, but the CHF continued to strengthen. On the 10th the SNB announced it would be purchasing an additional CHF40b in assets, which it pro

I had a few comments on a recent David Glasner post. Basically, I was trying to understand the way he reconciles various aspects of the monetary system, namely, inside and outside money, the arbitrage mechanism that links these two assets, and the price level. David responded to me- Inside money cannot trade at a discount relative to outside money because inside money is issued on the condition of its being convertible into outside money, so they always are exchangeable at par. If too much inside money is created (i.e., more than the public desires to hold given the relative attractiveness of holding inside money relative to alternatives including outside money) it refluxes back to the issuing banks.  David says that excess inside money (say convertible bank notes) will reflux back to an issuing bank. But the only way this can happen, as far as I can see, is if somehow that bank's inside money trades at a slight discount to outside money (gold). David in his first sentence above s

Last year and earlier this year, debate concerning the Target2 mechanism in Europe and its growing imbalances shed some light on the equivalent institution in the US, the Interdistrict Settlement Account (ISA). The argument has been made to import the ISA structure into Europe, in particular, the yearly settling of accounts between district Reserve banks. If the ECB were to operate this way, the idea goes, then there would be some sort of quid pro quo on Target2 imbalances - European national central banks (NCBs) would not be able to accumulate debts to each other ad infinitum. The observation was made that contrary to what one might expect, the ISA at the time did not seem to be balancing. Thus the idea that adoption of the Fed model would impose "firm limits" on intra-Eurosystem credit is invalid, since the Fed doesn't seem to always impose settlement on district Reserve banks. This April, though, the ISA seems to have been settled, as the charts below will illustrate.